I am not, in anyway, an unconditional supporter of the Spanish Royal Household, but I have a long-lasting doubt that today, at last, I have dared to ask Professor Gerardo Pisarello (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gerardo_Pisarello?wprov=sfti1).
While posting crazily to Spanish Work Minister Yolanda Diaz Perez, who is somewhat of a Communist and presents herself as an alternative to stupid President Sánchez, I started to think about former king Juan Carlos I. Can you explain, Mr. Pisarello, (you are an expert in the Spanish Constitution) the process by which the figure of the “emeritus king” (that’s the heading the Spanish media use day after day to refer to him) was arrived at here, in Spain? I guess that when it comes to women, what’s usual is to talk about the “queen mother”; in the case of men, it seems there isn’t a “king father,” perhaps they are refered to to by their titles or as the “previous” or the “former” king,”. Which is the origin and legal status of king Juan Carlos’ “emeritism,” Juan Carlos’ condition of emeritus.
The Queen of England is the richest woman in the world. Does any Englishman worry about her fortune? I am not longing to polemize. I raise the question because you’re a well-known professor of Constitutional Law in Catalunya and a deputy in the Spanish Congress by Ada Colau’s “Barcelona en Comu” and you have repeteadly shown. concern about the fortune of emeritus king Juan Carlos I. (As in this video: https://fb.watch/a1x4pk5g2I/).
(The Spanish Congress … a whorehouse).
By the way, I think Pisarello is a fake scholar and is misleading, or just doesn’t dare to guide appropriately my admired imaginary friend Yolanda Diaz.